CINCINNATI — The Cincinnati Bengals have made the decision to part ways with one of their high-profile free agent acquisitions from last year. The team announced on Friday that they have released defensive tackle Sheldon Rankins.
Rankins joined the Bengals last offseason with high expectations, signing a two-year contract valued at $24.5 million. But after just seven games into the first season of the deal, the Bengals have decided to move in a different direction.
Back in 2024, when Cincinnati brought Rankins on board, he was seen as a significant addition to bolster the team’s defensive line. Prior to his move, Rankins made quite an impression with the Houston Texans, racking up six sacks, including three during a standout performance against the Bengals. That game was one of the highlights of his career.
Unfortunately, Rankins’ time in Cincinnati was marred by setbacks. He suffered a hamstring injury, causing him to miss three games, but he did make a comeback in Week 6 and played for five more games after that. During this stretch, he managed just one sack and one quarterback hit.
At the age of 31, Rankins then missed the last seven games due to what was initially described by coach Zac Taylor as a viral illness. While there was some hope from Taylor later on that Rankins might make a return, it never materialized. Ultimately, Rankins was placed on the non-football injured reserve list in the final week of the regular season.
Rankins was set to receive a roster bonus on March 17, but by releasing him now, the Bengals gain a much-needed cap relief, freeing up $9.6 million. However, this move will also result in a $2 million dead money charge against the salary cap.
The Bengals are now focused on revamping a defense that struggled throughout the past season. Despite standout performances from key players like Joe Burrow, Ja’Marr Chase, and Trey Hendrickson, the team finished with a 9-8 record and failed to reach the playoffs for the second year in a row.
